T cells are known to be “serial killers” because after a T cell attacks one cancer cell, it can go on to a second one and so on. This property may be instrumental for BiTE antibodies activity because the vast majority antibody molecules don’t reach the tumor in the first place. The ability to serially kill mulutiple cells coupled with the ability to multiply upon binding a cancer cell leads to a very strong amplification.

Best,
Ohad

As you probably know, the NHL market is perhaps the most active market relatively to the number of patients. I don’t have all the data in front of me but off the top of my head I can think of the regimen R-FCM, which led to a very high response rate in relapsed follicular lymphoma ( I think it was over 90%). IMMU’s radio-labeled epratuzumab also had promising results in relapsed NHL patients in this year’s ASCO. Similarly to MT103, it achieved a 100% response rate (75% CR !) when given at the highest dose. BIIB also looks good with 60% response rate.

Ohad

Thank you very much for your great answers to my prior question.
May I ask one more question?
In the article with this link
http://www.bio-medicine.org/medicine-technology-1/Micromet-to-Present-Clinical-Update-for-BiTE-Antibody-MT103-MEDI-538-at-the-International-Conference-on-Malignant-Lymphomas-2179-1/
“About BiTE Antibodies

BiTE(R) antibodies are designed to direct the body’s cytotoxic, or cell-destroying, T cells against tumor cells, and represent a new therapeutic approach to cancer therapy. BiTE antibodies have been shown to induce an immunological synapse between a T cell and a tumor cell in the same manner as observed during physiological T cell attacks. These cytolytic synapses enable the delivery of cytotoxic proteins from T cells into tumor cells, ultimately inducing a self-destruction process in the tumor cell referred to as apoptosis, or programmed cell death. In the presence of BiTE antibodies, T cells have been demonstrated to serially eliminate tumor cells, which explains the activity of BiTE antibodies at very low concentrations and at very low ratios of T cells to target cells. Through the process of kill”

Could you please elaborate in the above paragraph the phrase “serially eliminate” tumor cells? What does SERIALLY exactly mean here?

Many thanks again.

2)older patietns and patients who have undergone many treatments are considered more challenging and less responsive to treatments. I don’t know if the highest dose cohort was intentionally designed to accrue younger and less pre-treated patients, but had they been older and heavily pre-treated, the response to MT103 might have been lower.

2)”A closer look at patient demographics reveals that patients in the highest cohort were younger and less heavily pretreated compared to patients in lower doses, which might explain the 100% response rate. ”

Could you elaborate about the above words? Why patients in the highest cohort were younger and less heavily pretreated compared to patients in lower doses, which might explain the 100% response rate?

Thanks a lot in advance.

I have a few questions
1. What is the exactly mechanism behind the fact that a continuous infusion will significantly decrease MT103?

2. What do you mean that the MD103 responsive cohorts are mostly young cohorts who have been heavily treated by Rituxin? (Sorry that I do not remember the exact words which is somewhere buried in your long article)

Can you elorate on that ?

Thanks a lot.